So I was reading this in a book and just couldn't grasp this...
There is no real number x such that
0 (multiplied by) x =1 , so 0 has no multiplicative inverse.
But I thought 0 multiplied by anything was always 0 so how could this be
no matter what x could be the answer would always be be 0 not 1 right?
Is it because x isn't a real number? But still that just doesn't seem right.