So I was reading this in a book and just couldn't grasp this...

It said:

NOTE

There is no real number x such that

0 (multiplied by) x =1 , so 0 has no multiplicative inverse.

But I thought 0 multiplied by anything was always 0 so how could this be

no matter what x could be the answer would always be be 0 not 1 right?

Is it because x isn't a real number? But still that just doesn't seem right.

please help