Why is 5-⅔ (5 raised to the power of -2/3) equal to 1/5⅔ (1 divided 5 raised to the power of 2/3)? I mean to say how does the negative sign of the exponent ⅔ change to positive when 5-⅔ (5 raised to the power of -2/3) is inversed?

Thanks,

Ron

Printable View

- April 24th 2010, 04:21 AMrn5aExponents
Why is 5-⅔ (5 raised to the power of -2/3) equal to 1/5⅔ (1 divided 5 raised to the power of 2/3)? I mean to say how does the negative sign of the exponent ⅔ change to positive when 5-⅔ (5 raised to the power of -2/3) is inversed?

Thanks,

Ron - April 24th 2010, 04:25 AMProve It
- April 24th 2010, 04:40 AMrn5a
- April 24th 2010, 04:44 AMBacterius
- April 24th 2010, 05:05 AMrn5a
Thanks mate....that was a great explanation. BTW why is 1 + 0 = 1?http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...ons/icon12.gif

- April 24th 2010, 05:25 AMBacterius
- April 24th 2010, 05:36 AMProve It
- April 24th 2010, 10:34 AMChokfull
I wouldn't say "It's just obvious". When you have , it means . When the exponent, which means

*the number of 5s you multiply the 1 by*is negative, you start dividing. Therefore, - April 24th 2010, 05:30 PMProve It