Sorry im redoing it accidently submitted the wrong thing
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Here was my attempt it was actuly a derivative problem but i decided not to post in the calculus section.
Originally Posted by x5pyd3rx Here was my attempt it was actuly a derivative problem but i decided not to post in the calculus section. You can't distribute the two to the binomial expression because that expression is an infinite sum and the 2 is not raised to the same power. You cannot simplify that further. EDIT: If you're planning on finding the derivative use the product rule and the chain rule
Last edited by e^(i*pi); February 20th 2010 at 11:14 AM. Reason: see post
I'm assuming you are taking the derivative of f(x): In that case, you made errors in both the second and third steps. (second step) You can't put the multiple of 2 inside the term. (third step) You should be multiplying by , not subtracting .
Ahhh ok gotcha.. (no need to change the post btw)
Originally Posted by e^(i*pi) A slight correction:
Originally Posted by icemanfan I'm assuming you are taking the derivative of f(x): In that case, you made errors in both the second and third steps. (second step) You can't put the multiple of 2 inside the term. (third step) You should be multiplying by , not subtracting . Your right... I did i just wrote it on here wrong. thanks for the help both of you
So in that case i can rewrite it as
Originally Posted by x5pyd3rx So in that case i can rewrite it as Correct.
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