Thread: How would i rewrite this problem

Sorry im redoing it accidently submitted the wrong thing

Here was my attempt it was actuly a derivative problem but i decided not to post in the calculus section.

Originally Posted by x5pyd3rx

Here was my attempt it was actuly a derivative problem but i decided not to post in the calculus section.

You can't distribute the two to the binomial expression because that expression is an infinite sum and the 2 is not raised to the same power.





You cannot simplify that further.


EDIT: If you're planning on finding the derivative use the product rule and the chain rule

I'm assuming you are taking the derivative of f(x):



In that case, you made errors in both the second and third steps.

(second step) You can't put the multiple of 2 inside the term.

(third step) You should be multiplying by , not subtracting .

Ahhh ok gotcha.. (no need to change the post btw)

Originally Posted by e^(i*pi)

A slight correction:

Originally Posted by icemanfan

I'm assuming you are taking the derivative of f(x):



In that case, you made errors in both the second and third steps.

(second step) You can't put the multiple of 2 inside the term.

(third step) You should be multiplying by , not subtracting .

Your right... I did i just wrote it on here wrong. thanks for the help both of you

So in that case i can rewrite it as

Originally Posted by x5pyd3rx

So in that case i can rewrite it as

Correct.