Hi,

In my calculus book i have the following limit problem:

$\displaystyle \lim_{x\to \infty}~\bigg(1+sin\frac{3}{x}\bigg)^x$

The first part of the solution:

1.Take the log of both sides:

$\displaystyle ln~y = \lim_{x\to \infty}~x~ln\bigg(1+sin\frac{3}{x}\bigg)$

Here's the part i don't understand:

$\displaystyle \frac{ln\bigg(1+sin\frac{3}{x}\bigg)}{\frac{1}{x}}$

Isn't dividing by 1/x the same as multiplying by x?