Thread: Proving Pythagorean theorem

Good day! Im a noob in math so i just want to ask this simple question. I know that Pythagorean theorem is the sum of the areas of 2 squares on the legs equals to the area of the square on the hypotenuse. My question is; why did they refer to a square to prove the a theorem that is being used into a triangle? thanks in advance.

Pythagoras' states: . If we want to obtain the hypotenuse, c, we need to take squares on both sides. It's just inherent in the definition of the hypotenuse:

Originally Posted by imuthis

Good day! Im a noob in math so i just want to ask this simple question. I know that Pythagorean theorem is the sum of the areas of 2 squares on the legs equals to the area of the square on the hypotenuse. My question is; why did they refer to a square to prove the a theorem that is being used into a triangle? thanks in advance.

You can find several proofs of the theorem here:

Pythagorean theorem - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

(My personal favorite is the one titled "Algebraic Proof".)

I read all about that in wikipedia and even watch videos in you tube but i dont get it, why they are trying to prove an equation for a triangle using a square.

Originally Posted by imuthis

I read all about that in wikipedia and even watch videos in you tube but i dont get it, why they are trying to prove an equation for a triangle using a square.

We don't have to use this method of proof, as awkward has pointed out, there are many proofs of the theorem. It just so happens that the proof you mention is a popular and simple one. If you still want to worry about it, think about how a right-angled triangle relates to a rectangle/square. Could a square be built out of triangles, and vice-versa?

Thanks masters you really point me to the right direction! Ill just have to work on this a liitle bit more to prove the relationship. Thanks again!