Let x and y be positive real numbers. Prove that: I'm not sure how to approach this. Do I simplify/expand somehow or is there a special thing I should do with problems like these. Please help, thanks, BG
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Use AM-GM inequality: Now multiply the inequalities.
Originally Posted by BG5965 Let x and y be positive real numbers. Prove that: I'm not sure how to approach this. Do I simplify/expand somehow or is there a special thing I should do with problems like these. Please help, thanks, BG Hello there is the solution: I'have : but : ^2 q + q^2 p + 4\left( {p + q} \right) + 2\left( {p^2 + q^2 } \right) \ge 8pq + 4pq" alt="(1) + (2)^2 q + q^2 p + 4\left( {p + q} \right) + 2\left( {p^2 + q^2 } \right) \ge 8pq + 4pq" /> Conclusion :
Sorry, dhiab, but I don't 100% understand your post - especially everything after step 1 (the expansion). E.g. why is suddenly and everything after that. Could you please explain further. Thanks, BG
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