I need to prove that the next function is a density function, meaning, to prove that the integral equals 1. I know that I need to use Cauchy's distribution , but I can't figure out how exactly, you can say it's a calculus problem....
the function is:
f(x)= (1/pi) * ( beta / beta^2+(x-a)^2)
beta does not refers to the beta function, just the greek letter