(i) Suppose X has a binomial distribution with probability of success p over n trials. Show that (ii) Suppose now X has a negative binomial distribution with density with and . Prove that for any function f(x),
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For the first one I would rewrite and obtain instead. That can be done by substituting y=x+1 in your sum.
Last edited by matheagle; April 19th 2009 at 08:48 AM.
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Originally Posted by Moo Hello, See here : http://www.mathhelpforum.com/math-he...ted-value.html Thread closed.
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