A little question...
Let be the probability space.
We know that if , then (we don't necessarily have )
Is there a proof (with formulae, not diagrams) for that :
For any , if P(A)=1, then
Too bad Plato deleted his post, I can't remember it completely ><
Thank you to all three for replying
And special thanks to Laurent, because he can always provide the answer I'm looking for