Hi

A little question...

Let be the probability space.

We know that if , then (we don't necessarily have )

Is there a proof (with formulae, not diagrams) for that :

For any , if P(A)=1, then

?

Thanks

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- Feb 9th 2009, 06:32 AM #1

- Feb 9th 2009, 06:50 AM #2

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- Feb 9th 2009, 08:44 AM #3

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- Feb 9th 2009, 08:59 AM #4
Hmm So how would you prove that ? That's the problem...

That's... erm perfect... :P

Too bad Plato deleted his post, I can't remember it completely ><

Thank you to all three for replying

And special thanks to Laurent, because he can always provide the answer I'm looking for