Hi

A little question...

Let be the probability space.

We know that if , then (we don't necessarily have )

Is there a proof (with formulae, not diagrams) for that :

For any , if P(A)=1, then

?

Thanks

Results 1 to 4 of 4

- February 9th 2009, 07:32 AM #1

- February 9th 2009, 07:50 AM #2

- Joined
- Jan 2009
- Posts
- 11

- February 9th 2009, 09:44 AM #3

- Joined
- Aug 2008
- From
- Paris, France
- Posts
- 1,174

- February 9th 2009, 09:59 AM #4
Hmm So how would you prove that ? That's the problem...

That's... erm perfect... :P

Too bad Plato deleted his post, I can't remember it completely ><

Thank you to all three for replying

And special thanks to Laurent, because he can always provide the answer I'm looking for