Originally Posted by

**Simo** Dear all,

I have a problem that is drive me crazy...

its description is so simple:

You have $\displaystyle M$ balls and $\displaystyle L$ holes $\displaystyle (M \gtrless L)$. The balls are indistinguishable and are putted in the holes randomly (following a uniform probability distribution). The holes can take an infinite number of balls each.

At the end of the assignment every hole can contain 0, 1 or more balls.

How is it possible to compute the probability to have a certain number of holes with at least one balls in?

Any suggestion is welcome!