Results 1 to 5 of 5

- August 9th 2008, 08:06 AM #1

- Joined
- Aug 2008
- Posts
- 7

- August 9th 2008, 03:43 PM #2

- August 10th 2008, 12:08 AM #3

- Joined
- Aug 2008
- Posts
- 7

- August 10th 2008, 12:20 AM #4

- Joined
- Nov 2005
- From
- someplace
- Posts
- 14,972
- Thanks
- 5

First the sum of independent normals is normal and hence so is the mean, also the expected value of sample mean is the population mean. Then the variance of a sum of independent RVs is equal to the sum of the variances so the variance of the sum of iid normals of variance is .

RonL

- August 10th 2008, 02:03 AM #5