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- Aug 9th 2008, 08:06 AM #1

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- Aug 9th 2008, 03:43 PM #2

- Aug 10th 2008, 12:08 AM #3

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- Aug 10th 2008, 12:20 AM #4

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First the sum of independent normals is normal and hence so is the mean, also the expected value of sample mean is the population mean. Then the variance of a sum of independent RVs is equal to the sum of the variances so the variance of the sum of iid normals of variance is .

RonL

- Aug 10th 2008, 02:03 AM #5