Hi, my question is;
Which of the following is/are assumptions underlying the test for the equality of two variances?
1) The samples are independent
2) Both populations are normally distributed
3) Both populations have the same mean
4) 1 and 2
5) 1 and 3
6) 1,2 and 3
There's also an F-test for two population variances with correlated observations where it's assumed that that the observations have been performed in pairs and that correlation exists between the paired observations. That the populations are normally distributed is also assumed.
In both F-tests it's not necessary that the populations should have the same mean.
And it should be noted that the Levene test is less dependent on the assumption of normality than most tests, although it is assumed that the populations under consideration are approximately normally distributed.