Yes, we have worked with those a little. The mean is basically E(X) and variance is E(X^2) - E(x)^2. I am really not sure where to go from there, though... so, maybe I could take over after the first couple steps, but I am just not sure how to start.
I really don't even know where to start on this theorem. Please help!!!
E(aX + b) = a E(X) + b.
Var(aX + b) = a^2 Var(X).
In your problem, you want E(X/n) and Var(X/n) ......
And, asking again, you know what E(X) and Var(X) is for a binomial distribution, right? (I can't imagine why you wuld get this question if you didn't ......)
Ok, yes I figured it out. Thank you for repeating the fact that it was a binomial distribution. I got the proof!!! I can post it if you would like to see it in all its wonderfulness