probability

**heathrowjohnny** · Feb 8th 2008, 03:37 PM

Let $A$ be people who are high risk, $B$ be people who are medium risk, and $C$ be people who are low risk.

Lets say $P(A) = p, \ P(B) = q, \ P(C) = r$ and the proportion of those in $A$ is $\hat{p}$ , those in $B$ is $\hat{q}$ , and those in $R$ is $\hat{r}$ , where $\hat{p} + \hat{q} + \hat{r} = 1$ .

So $P(\text{high risk and in the group}) = p(\hat{p})$

$P(\text{person at risk}) = p(\hat{p}) + q(\hat{q}) + r(\hat{r})$ and

$P(\text{randomly chosen person is high risk}) = \frac{ p(\hat{p})}{p(\hat{p}) + q(\hat{q}) + r(\hat{r}) }$ ?

**heathrowjohnny** · Feb 9th 2008, 03:46 AM

would it just be $p$ and $\hat{p}$ ?

**heathrowjohnny** · Feb 9th 2008, 10:37 PM

or is this a poorly worded question?

**tbyou87** · Feb 9th 2008, 11:05 PM

What's your question? Because the you answered then 3 questions written correctly.

**heathrowjohnny** · Feb 9th 2008, 11:10 PM

oh ok, so its correct?

**tbyou87** · Feb 9th 2008, 11:21 PM

yeah i think so... I've been doing probability all day so it is possible i'm not seeing this right but i'll keep looking and post if i change my mind

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