After going through all the painstaking proofs, I have finally come to this step:
If we denote z as, we can scale the above formula to the standard normal curve:
When we calculate the area under 2 points on the z-axis, say, A to B, we do :
But why is the integral given as:
What happens to the "npq" term?
Please help to alleviate my doubt if you can. Thanks!
It disappears when you convertOriginally Posted by chopet
After going through all the painstaking proofs, I have finally come to this step:
If we denote z as
When we calculate the area under 2 points on the z-axis, say, A to B, we do :
But why is the integral given as:
What happens to the "npq" term?
Please help to alleviate my doubt if you can. Thanks!to
in the integral.
That is you approximate the sum over the relevant range ofby an integral over a range of
.
ZB
  |
LinkBack URL
About LinkBacks