HELP PLEASE...
Can anyone provide a proof for the variance of binomial distribution?
Show that it is npq without using the Bernoulli distribution and independence way..( which is the typical way of summations or expectations)
please help me..
thank you so much..
Actually not knowing what text material you have been given, this could be seen as an odd question.
Therefore what I do is just a guess. I expect that your text would have shown the if X is the binomial variable then .
Using the standard definition for variance:
.
From which the result follows.