I understand the poission approximation to the binomial distribution:
where mean number of success in a given population of size n
But I am confused how it is mapped to the Poission distribution:
where mean number of success in a given population of size n
Now, how can and mean the same thing???
So we are treating the first case as t=1?
t=2 would mean we are dealing with 2 populations?
But the mean number per population should be independent of t right?
If in t=1 population, the mean is 30 successes.
Then in t=10 populations, the mean is still 30 successes.
Is my concept wrong?
Thanks for your help.