Hi,

I'd be grateful if anyone could elucidate why this

$\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^2 \binom{2}{k} (1-p)^k p^{2-k} > \sum_{k=2}^4 \binom{4}{k} (1-p)^k p^{4-k} $

is equivalent to this

$\displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^1 \binom{4}{k} (1-p)^k p^{4-k}> \binom{2}{0} (1-p)^0 p^{2}$

I guess it should be obvious but I can't quite see why. Thanks in advance. MD