I hope some of you can help me out a little.
I read the following in a article, like it's an obvious fact. (http://research.microsoft.com/en-us/...papers/poi.pdf page 18, lemma 11)
Letbe a
-algebra on the probability space
, and let
be some bounded interval.
Letbe the
-algebra, generated by the restriction of
to
. Let
. Why does there exist for every
some
and an event
such that
. ??
In otherwords,can sufficiently be approximated by
. Is this obvious?
Is it because...(and continuity of the probability measure
?)
Also is claimed thatIs this true?
Something general likeif
, does not hold right?
Really looking forward to your suggestions.


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