If X~N(0,1) is X^2~Chisquare(1) ?
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yes
Also if X_1,...,X_n ~N(mu,sigma^2) is the sum of [((X_i-mu)^2)/sigma^2] ~ chisq(n) or is it {the sum of (X_i-mu)^2}/sigma^2 ~ chisq(n)? or are these two the same, becasue sigma^2 can be taken outside of the sum?
if you can answer the below, you can answer your own question: is "(X-mu)/sigma" distributed as N(0,1) ? On the "are they the same" question: yes, provided that sigma is constant for all Xi.
Oh ok, thanks, so chisquare takes its parameter to be the number of variables, and if X_i are not the standard normal distribution, they have to be normalised first.
yep
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