My data set is the first 10,000 digits of pi.
Let's say I use the Durbin–Watson statistic and determine that there is no positive or negative autocorrelation.
Does that suggest that the data was generated from a psuedo-random process?
My data set is the first 10,000 digits of pi.
Let's say I use the Durbin–Watson statistic and determine that there is no positive or negative autocorrelation.
Does that suggest that the data was generated from a psuedo-random process?