Let X_{1},...,X_{n} be independent random variables, that
P(X_{i}=1)=1/i=1-P(X_{i}=0) and K_{n}=X_{1}+...+x_{n}
Show that  K_{n}/log(n) to1 with probability
Decide if  K_{n}/log(n) to 1 almost sure
Hint \frac{sum_{k=1}^{n}1/k}{log(n)}\arrow

Thx for any help