If An=max{B1,B2,....Bn} use an elementary probability argument to show that An has cumulative distribution function:

FAn(a) = {0 (a<=0)

{ (1-e^(-a/lamda) )^n (a>0)

Thanks in advance for any help with this question, I've thought and thought about it and don't even know where to start. Even if I could be nudged in the right direction, I'd be very grateful for any help. Thanks!