given Ber(x,p) = Pr(X=x) = {p , x=1 {1-p , x=0 { o , else Let p e(0,1) and X~Ber(x,p). Prove or disprove that Var[x]= p(1-p). no idea where to start on this one guys...
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Originally Posted by nikie1o2 given Ber(x,p) = Pr(X=x) = {p , x=1 {1-p , x=0 { o , else Let p e(0,1) and X~Ber(x,p). Prove or disprove that Var[x]= p(1-p). no idea where to start on this one guys... Start with the definition of variance: We have and all other values have probability zero. So: and: CB
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