The time it takes for a pendulum to complete the one period is simplified by the formula: T=2 pi square root (L/g) Where g is the constant measuring 9.80655m/s^2 and L is the length of the pendulum. The length of the pendulums from a manufacture are normally distributed with a mean of 10cm and a standard deviation of 0.01 cm. Assuming the at a 10cm pendulum gives the correct time, what is the probability that a clock using one of theses pendulums will lose more than 1 minute a day? :confused: