Sorry to try anyones patience but now I found this place I'm taking advantage!
OK. I don't quite get this. In calculating variance you sum (X-mean(X))^2 no? (And then you divide by n...I know). I understand that the squaring will get rid of the sign but why not use the modulus/absolute value of X-mean(X)?
Thanks in advance!
Jimbo (math duffer)


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