Hello,

I have a somewhat basic question. Suppose I need to sample

$\displaystyle (\theta_1,\theta_2) \sim q(\theta_1,\theta_2)$.

Is this achieved if I first sample

$\displaystyle \theta_1 \sim q(\theta_1)$

and then sample

$\displaystyle \theta_2 \sim q(\theta_2|\theta_2)$, or does that correspond to something else?