I am reading my text, and they make a jump that I don't understand, and they don't give any explanation for it.
Sorry, I couldn't figure out how to put this stuff in latex...
mu=mean....greek letter (in particular, not m*u)
It gives the sum from i=1 to n of (xi-x bar)^2 + 2*(x bar-mu)*sum from i=1 to n of (xi-x bar)+n(x bar-mu)^2
It then says that this is equal to
sum from i=1 to n of (xi-x bar)^2 + n(x bar-mu)^2
Essentially they seem to be saying that
2*(x bar -mu)*sum from i=1 to n of (xi-x bar)
is zero
Is it because x bar- mu is 0? I didn't think this was the case......why is this middle term zero?


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