is this zero again?
I have no idea what F (x | X <1) means.
is that P(X<x|X<1)?
I know that maybe this issue can be pre-college, but hey, an apology in advance.
This is the problem:
"The random variable is defined on the interval [0,2]. It is known that:
calculate: ."
then, i did this:
(i) .... I apply the Baye’s theorem:
on the other hand: cuz
(ii) in the case of :
…. I apply the Baye’s theorem:
on the other hand: cuz
(iii)
Note: notice the difference between and (uppercase and lowercase)
then I think I'm wrong from the foundation, we would appreciate if someone guide me in this problem, and another thing, is ?
I'm strugglng to understand what you're trying to say here.
It appears that X is a discrete random variable that can take on the value 0, 1 and 2 with non-zero probability.
You know Pr(X = 1) = 1/4.
From E(X) = 1 it follows that Pr(X = 2) is 3/8.
From Pr(X = 0) + Pr(X = 1) + Pr(X = 2) = 1 it follows that Pr(X = 0) = 3/8.
So the distribution is now completely defined. I have no idea what F is meant to be but whatever it is, F(1) can surely be calculated from what I have said above.