Originally Posted by
CaptainBlack
Yes, but simplify (or rather calculate the approcimate value of this):
p(0) = f(0,0.03) = (e^(-0.03)*(0.03)^0)/(0!) ~= 0.9704
Probability that there are no flaws in a batch of 50 is:
P(0) = [p(0)]^50 ~= 0.223
I'm not quite sure what this is asking for, I might have to think about what it is asking,
but I expect what they want as an answer is the batch size for which the expected
number of flawed pannels = 1.
Let the batch size be N, probability that n are flawed is:
b(n,N,1-p(0)) = N!/(n! (N-n)!) (1-p(0))^n p(0)^(n-1),
and as this is binomial, the expected number of flawed panels is E(n) = N(1-p(0)) = N 0.02955,
So if E(n) = 1, the N we require is N=1/0.02955 ~= 33.8.
RonL