Hello everbody; i have a question. i really couldnt understand. i think it is easy for people who know theory. i have answer but help to walkthrough. i go on from the middle of question

X ~ N(0,1)

Y ~ chi_square(n)

W_n = 1/n * X/Y

answer says ; use chebyshev inequality

E(Y/n) = 1

Var(Y/n) =2/n < inf for all n

n-> inf. lim V(Y/n) = 0

so it says; W --> N(0,1) in distribution

what i didnt understand is that where did the X go? is it ignored because it is standard normal distribution? or it seems it just reversed denominator.. i really didnt understand why.. thanks for your help.