Doesn't it sum to one because the CDF is measuring the area under the probability curve and if you measure over the entire range it will sum to one. My problem is that there is a known relationship between the incomplete beta and the binomial. I am trying to do the math to transform the incomplete beta into the binomial form. Most references I have found say you can tranform the incomplete beta to the binomial by integrating by parts and then some math manipulation. I am struggling with how to perform the integration by parts. I am not trying to find a specific probability.
I really appreciate your quick response.
The sum of all the probabilities is one
BUT the cdf measures probabilties as you move along the x-axis.
The entire sum of probabilities would be the COMPLETE beta function
is incomplete since the upper bound is not 1.
Your integral may be fine, but that sum is complete
I would need to know what the incomplete binomial sum is.
has the incomplete beta function and there is a different factorial in the binomial