Hi, I was wondering if someone could help me with this. Say we let be the Borel field of . If we let be probability measures. How does one prove or disprove that if for all then for all ? Any advice will be great.
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Hello, Do you know Dynkin's theorem that states that if two sigma-finite measures are equal for any element of a -system that generates a sigma-algebra, then they're equal for any element of that sigma-algebra ?
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