A test for a disease has a probability of 10% to give a false negative, this probability is not conditioned to anything else besides the test (is inherent to the test alone.).
The posibility of the test to give false negatives when taken twice is 0.1 x 0.1 ? 1% is this correct? (meaning the probability that both are negative)
take into account:
The results of the test is independent from previous results.
the question is not whether the person has the disease or not since that would most likely include conditional probability associated with epidimiology statistics (i.e. how many of the population have the disease) in which case Bayen would be used.
thanks I appreciate your opinions.