Hey, I am kind of stumped on this one. Anyone want to offer hints?

If f is in L1(m) and F(x) = integral ( f(t)dt ) from -infinity to x, then F is continuous on R.

I know a couple things, sure:

**F in L1(m) means that {x : f(x) = infinity} is a null set.

**F is integrable (and therefore continuous) is integral(F(x)) < infinity.