Can anyone help with suggestions for the following proof. This is for a research project I'm working on. Please let me know if you have any questions. Thanks! where and
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Have you considered using the (generalized) binomial theorem?
If then f(0) = 1 and f'(w) < 0. So the function f decreases from 1 as w increases, and thus f(w) < 1 for w > 0.
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