Is it posssible for b[x:r) and b[y;s) to be equal with x not equal to y and r not equal to s ?

I know it is possible,for instance if we consider a non empty set X with the discrete metric, then for each x in X the balls b[x;r) for r in (0,1] are equal to the singleton set {x}. Also the balls b[x;r) for r in (1,infinity) are equal to X for all x in X.

What is the idea behind two balls with different radii and centre's being equal ?

What i don't understand is, that even in the above example, in what sense are the two balls equal ?

What is the meaning of equality of two balls in a metric space ?

In this example one ball has only singleton element {x} and the other one is the whole metric space X then how are they equal ?

I am a little confused !