Sorry if my english is bad, I'll try my best :)

So: Prove that if A (in R^n) is measurable, there is an open set G (in R^n) so that A includes to G and and the Lebesgue measure m*(G\A)=0.

How do you do that?

Printable View

- February 3rd 2013, 02:10 AMLeksiusMeasure problem.
Sorry if my english is bad, I'll try my best :)

So: Prove that if A (in R^n) is measurable, there is an open set G (in R^n) so that A includes to G and and the Lebesgue measure m*(G\A)=0.

How do you do that?