Hi everyone,
Just a quick Q:
In one of my question I see a statement that:
Let , ... be indpt. non-negative random variables have mean 1.
Does anyone know what is this inequality called? so that I can find a proof for it
Thanks.
Hi everyone,
Just a quick Q:
In one of my question I see a statement that:
Let , ... be indpt. non-negative random variables have mean 1.
Does anyone know what is this inequality called? so that I can find a proof for it
Thanks.