you should post questions like this in the algebra section if you want to get a fater response.
anyway, suppose first that every

-dimesnional subalgebra of

is abelian and let

we only need to show that
)
is nilpotent because then we will be done by Engel's theoem. so suppose that

is an eigenvector of

. then there exists and

such that
![[a,x] = \lambda x.](http://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?[a,x] = \lambda x.)
but then the subalgebra generated by

would be at most

-dimensional and thus, by our hypothesis, abelian (note that 1-dimensional algebras are always abelian). hence
![\lambda x = [a,x]= 0,](http://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\lambda x = [a,x]= 0,)
which implies

so every eigenvalue of
)
is zero and therefore
)
is nilpotent.
conversely, suppose that

is nilpotent. so

for some integer

now, let

be a subalgebra of

and

suppose that

is not abelian. then there exist

such that
![[a,b] = \lambda a + \mu b \neq 0,](http://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?[a,b] = \lambda a + \mu b \neq 0,)
for some

and we may assume that

so
![[[a,b],b] = \lambda [a,b]](http://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?[[a,b],b] = \lambda [a,b])
and
![[[[a,b],b],b] = \lambda^2[a,b]](http://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?[[[a,b],b],b] = \lambda^2[a,b])
and, if we continue this process, we will eventually get
![\lambda^n[a,b] = 0](http://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\lambda^n[a,b] = 0)
because

but

and
![[a,b ] \neq 0](http://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?[a,b ] \neq 0)
and so
![\lambda^n [a,b] \neq 0.](http://latex.codecogs.com/png.latex?\lambda^n [a,b] \neq 0.)
this contradiction proves that

is abelian.