1. ## Well defined

Prove that the operation ? defined on Q is well defined. In other words prove:

If (p,q) ~= (p1, q1) and (r, s) ~= (r1,s1), then (p,q) ? (r,s) ~=(p1,q1) ? (r1, s1).

2. Originally Posted by tigergirl
Prove that the operation ? defined on Q is well defined. In other words prove:

If (p,q) ~= (p1, q1) and (r, s) ~= (r1,s1), then (p,q) ? (r,s) ~=(p1,q1) ? (r1, s1).

Obscure notation needs explaining, also you do not tell us how the operation has been defined.

CB