Prove that the operation ? defined on Q is well defined. In other words prove: If (p,q) ~= (p1, q1) and (r, s) ~= (r1,s1), then (p,q) ? (r,s) ~=(p1,q1) ? (r1, s1).
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Originally Posted by tigergirl Prove that the operation ? defined on Q is well defined. In other words prove: If (p,q) ~= (p1, q1) and (r, s) ~= (r1,s1), then (p,q) ? (r,s) ~=(p1,q1) ? (r1, s1). Obscure notation needs explaining, also you do not tell us how the operation has been defined. CB
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