Prove that the operation ? defined on Q is well defined. In other words prove:

If (p,q) ~= (p1, q1) and (r, s) ~= (r1,s1), then (p,q) ? (r,s) ~=(p1,q1) ? (r1, s1).

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- September 21st 2009, 09:43 PMtigergirlWell defined
Prove that the operation ? defined on Q is well defined. In other words prove:

If (p,q) ~= (p1, q1) and (r, s) ~= (r1,s1), then (p,q) ? (r,s) ~=(p1,q1) ? (r1, s1). - September 23rd 2009, 12:03 AMCaptainBlack