Originally Posted by

**DiscreteW** This is for a physics course, but it's very intensive on math.

I have to prove:

$\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \bar{\Psi} (x)\Psi (x)dx = 1$ is equivalent to:

$\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \bar{a} (p) a(p)dp = 1$

This is all part of Schrodinger stuff. Obvious the bar over psi above is the conjugrate, and the same goes for a.

We are working on Fourier transforms. I'm not sure if anyone is familiar with this, but I think topsquark (?) might be.

Thanks.