Can someone please tell me if the following looks correct: Use Richardson Extrapolation to get an approximation to f'(0) of degree 1 higher than f'(0)=(f(h)-f(0)/h) I've come up with (( 4f(h/2) - f(h) - 3f(0)) / h ) - (kh^2) / 2 for constant k
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Originally Posted by veronicak5678 Can someone please tell me if the following looks correct: Use Richardson Extrapolation to get an approximation to f'(0) of degree 1 higher than f'(0)=(f(h)-f(0)/h) I've come up with (( 4f(h/2) - f(h) - 3f(0)) / h ) - (kh^2) / 2 for constant k That looks OK except you do not need the remainder term to answer the question. CB
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