How does one show that the inverse Fourier transform of e^-a|y|, a>0 is (a/pi)*1/(x^2+a^2) thanks!
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Have you considered the definition of the Transform?
Yes, but I'm confused about how to integrate e^-a|y|*e^-iyx to get that answer
I would probably use the equation and then split up your integral into two pieces depending on which of the two cases is applicable.
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