# Probability theory

• May 18th 2007, 06:21 PM
pwr_hngry
Probability theory
Conditions: Suppose that a coin is flipped and a die is rolled. Let E_1 denote the Event "the coin shows a tail," let E_2 denote the event "the die shows a 3" and let E_3 denote the event "the coin shows heads and the die shows an odd number."

Problem: Are E_1 and E_2 mutually exclusive?

I am pretty much lost here and really dont even know where to start.

Pwr
• May 18th 2007, 07:10 PM
pwr_hngry
Sorry
This was accidentally posted in the wrong forum. Sorry
• May 19th 2007, 12:45 AM
CaptainBlack
Quote:

Originally Posted by pwr_hngry
Conditions: Suppose that a coin is flipped and a die is rolled. Let E_1 denote the Event "the coin shows a tail," let E_2 denote the event "the die shows a 3" and let E_3 denote the event "the coin shows heads and the die shows an odd number."

Problem: Are E_1 and E_2 mutually exclusive?

I am pretty much lost here and really dont even know where to start.

Pwr

No draw a Venn diagram of the situation. Are the areas represented by
E1 and E2 disjoint? No they overlap whenever both the coin shows a tail
and the die a 3. Therefore they are not mutually exclusive.

RonL
• May 19th 2007, 07:30 AM
Soroban
Hello, pwr_hngry!

Quote:

Suppose that a coin is flipped and a die is rolled.
Let E
1 denote the event: "the coin shows a tail".
Let E
2 denote the event: "the die shows a 3".

Problem: Are E
1 and E2 mutually exclusive?
How about starting with the definition of "mutually exclusive".
. . You don't know it?

Two events are mutually exclusive if they cannot happen at the same time.

Flip a coin and roll a die.
Is it possible to get a "tail" on the coin and a "3" on the die?

Well?

• May 19th 2007, 04:33 PM
pwr_hngry
Soroban,
By that definition of Mutually exclusive, it is definitely possible to roll a 3 on the die and have heads show on a coin. This would mean that tha E_1 and E_2 are NOT mutually exclusive.

Thanks for the Help Soroban and Captain Black.

Pwr.