first of all the fulf tansform is 1 when its |x|<1 0 other wise so why they chose x=0 ?? from this oppisite transform how can they say that ? its only a tranform how can they say that the integral gives the same result straigh away ?
Last edited by transgalactic; July 17th 2010 at 09:59 AM.
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Originally Posted by transgalactic first of all the fulf tansform is 1 when its |x|<1 0 other wise so why they chose x=0 ?? from this oppisite transform how can they say that ? its only a tranform how can they say that the integral gives the same result straigh away ? I'm sorry but most of your post is incomprehensible. But to see why the final integral is 1 from: just write out the integral for this inverse FT. CB
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