Suppose a function F satisfies 2 properties:
F(x) is computable within polynomial time,
Computing F^(-1)(x) (the inverse function) is exponential-time hard.
Then can F be considered a one-way function or not?
I've looked up the definition of one-way function, but I don't think the definition requires inverse function. The definition is, as I know,: Given a y, then it is not feasible to find the corresponding x value.
In addition, shouldn't the inverse function be expressed as F^(-1)(y)? Or this is not the point of this problem?

Please offer me some advice.