Hello! Given a surjective group homomorphism. Why is the restriction to the commutator subgroup
also surjective?
Greetings
Banach
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Hello! Given a surjective group homomorphism. Why is the restriction to the commutator subgroup
also surjective?
Greetings
Banach
Quite simply, because it's a homomorphism.
Let. Then,
and
are homomorphic images of elements from
, because the mapping is onto. So substitute in these elements,
,
and then use the fact that
is a homomorphism to see that it is in the image of
. Thus the generators of
are contained in the image, and so the whole subgroup is.
.
Well, yes of course... Did not see the obvious.
Thank you for helping me.
Greetings
Banach
Sorry, I am a bit confused today: My actual question is why the induced homomorphism between the abelianizationsis then surjective?
Greetings
Banach
Well, it is clear: Let, then there is a
. But there is an
. Since
, we are there.
Greetings
Banach
You were quicker :).
Thank you for your help!
Sorry, as said before i am completely confused today. I will try to be in a fitter state when i post my next question (Rofl).
By the way p_A and p_B are the projections to the quotient.
Have a nice day.
Banach